Bhartrhari's Paradox

(futilitycloset.com)

20 points | by surprisetalk 3 hours ago

8 comments

  • ngvrnd 48 minutes ago
    „Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, darüber muss man schweigen“

    but if the thing can be interacted with, it can usually be mapped and defined and then named. But there will always be things which do not have names, at least in mathematics -- think of the real numbers.

  • GPerson 1 hour ago
    If we assume the real numbers exist, then perhaps the paradox resolves because there are uncountably many reals and only countably many nameable things, but then perhaps the paradox does not resolve because we assume ZFC is true and we can well order the reals, hence name the first unnameable real.
    • mark_something 52 minutes ago
      The reals can be ordered, just use x < y. I think you mean that if ZFC is true, we could enumerate unnameable reals (choose one with the axiom of choice, remove it, choose another one, etc.), but you could not enumerate them all. But it is true that you could get a "first" unnameable real.
      • pdonis 49 minutes ago
        > The reals can be ordered, just use x < y.

        That ordering is not a well-ordering, which is what the GP specified. A well ordering requires that every non-empty subset has a smallest element. That's not true for the reals ordered by x < y: for example, the set of all reals > 0 has no smallest element.

        No one has explicitly shown that the reals can be well ordered, but it's a consequence of the axiom of choice that every set can be well-ordered. So in ZFC there must be a well ordering of the reals, even though no one has found one. Issues like this are why not all mathematicians accept the axiom of choice.

  • gaoshan 56 minutes ago
    If you can't name it you can still describe it.

    But then by describing it you are committing it to a set of conditions this unnameable thing satisfies.

    But then if you go beyond a narrow interpretation of that paradox and accept that naming and describing are both accomplishing the same fundamental thing, that being committing a thing to a condition (like a name) or set of conditions (like a description), you do run into the same problem.

    Hmm, interesting. Now back to this E2E testing stuff I've been avoiding.

    • bwfan123 42 minutes ago
      Names are like variables in a function. you can name variables anything you want from a human understanding point of view (final cause), but the compiler doesnt care about that. The compiler only cares about the efficient cause of that variable in the sense of what it represents (stack/heap etc).
  • snapcaster 1 hour ago
    I'm open to the idea that some things are unnameable but would need an example :)
    • loa_in_ 1 hour ago
      I'll write you as soon as I can
  • b450 35 minutes ago
    counterargument:

    1) let x be a thing

    2) I name x "Jeff"

    3) all things are nameable (from 1 and 2)

    another way to put this is that it's natural to take the paradox as a reductio.

    • crimsonspy 15 minutes ago
      Jeff jeff jeff, jeff jeff jeff jeff! Jeff? Jeff.
  • kranner 1 hour ago
  • curtisblaine 1 hour ago
    How is it a paradox? Isn't this just a proof that there are many unnamed things, but no unnameable ones?
    • bwfan123 22 minutes ago
      > Isn't this just a proof that there are many unnamed things, but no unnameable ones?

      Where is it a proof that there are many unnamed things ? I could only see it as an argument that there are no "unnameable" things.

    • WillAdams 56 minutes ago
      Agreed.

      This is the stuff of magic and folklore, and neatly resolved by Ursula K. LeGuin in _A Wizard of Earthsea_.

  • cyanydeez 52 minutes ago
    Sounds akin to the complexity inherent in cellular automata. We know via the rules how to mutate successive generations, but backwards propagation, algorithmic simplification, etc may exist but not traceable from any given ruleset.